a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management which of the following assessments is the nurses priority
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has asthma and is experiencing wheezing. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used to quickly relieve bronchospasm in clients with asthma who are experiencing wheezing. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for acute wheezing. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma management, not for immediate relief of wheezing. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and not typically used as the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbation.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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