Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client for constipation.
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line?

• A. Flush the line daily
• B. Monitor for infection
• C. Change the dressing weekly
• D. Replace the central line every week

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient with a central line, monitoring for infection is crucial. This is because central lines can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, leading to serious infections. While flushing the line daily and changing the dressing weekly are important aspects of central line care, monitoring for infection takes precedence. Infections can occur rapidly and have severe consequences, so early detection through vigilant monitoring is key. Replacing the central line every week is not a standard practice and should only be done when clinically indicated, such as in cases of infection or malfunction.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Heart rate of 82/min
• C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine.
• B. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
• C. Perform debridement as needed.
• D. Keep the wound open to air.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

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