Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide wound debridement
• C. Change the dressing daily
• D. Elevate the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.

2. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?

• A. The PCA will deliver a double dose of medication when you push the button twice.
• B. Continuous PCA infusion is designed to allow fluctuating plasma medication levels.
• C. You should push the button before physical activity to allow maximum pain control.
• D. You can adjust the amount of pain medication you receive by pushing on the keypad.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught by a nurse about managing protein intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
• B. You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.
• C. You should avoid all protein sources to prevent further kidney damage.
• D. You should increase your intake of animal protein.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.' Clients with chronic kidney disease should restrict their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Option A is incorrect as increasing intake of high-protein foods can exacerbate the condition. Option C is incorrect as avoiding all protein sources is not advisable, as some proteins are essential for overall health. Option D is incorrect as increasing the intake of animal protein can put more strain on the kidneys due to the metabolites produced during protein breakdown.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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