Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administer bronchodilators
• B. Administer corticosteroids
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Start IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing acute asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (Choice B) is also important in the treatment plan, but it is not the priority intervention during an acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority initial intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice D) is not typically indicated as a priority intervention for an acute asthma attack.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.

4. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to have my blood levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. I should avoid eating foods that are high in sodium.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients prescribed lithium need regular monitoring of blood levels to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. This monitoring helps to keep the medication within the therapeutic range and prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is not directly related to lithium therapy; however, excessive sodium intake can affect lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping lithium can lead to adverse effects and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Calcium
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

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