Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for Heparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored while the client is receiving Heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor while a client is receiving Heparin. This test is used to assess the therapeutic levels of heparin in the blood, ensuring that the dose is within the safe and effective range. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage of Heparin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

2. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Protamine
• C. Omeprazole
• D. Probenecid

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help manage these symptoms effectively. Choice A, Vitamin K1, is incorrect as it antagonizes the activity of Dabigatran, counteracting its anticoagulant effect. Choice B, Protamine, is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Choice D, Probenecid, is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. INR
• C. BUN
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

4. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C of 7.5%
• B. Creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL
• C. BUN level of 18 mg/dL
• D. Liver function tests showing AST of 50 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.

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