Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for Heparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored while the client is receiving Heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor while a client is receiving Heparin. This test is used to assess the therapeutic levels of heparin in the blood, ensuring that the dose is within the safe and effective range. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage of Heparin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

2. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Isosorbide
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Atorvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.

3. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increase in HDL cholesterol
• C. Prevention of bipolar manic episodes
• D. Improved sexual function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.

5. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication every other day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.

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