a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for heparin which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor while the client is
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client has a prescription for Heparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored while the client is receiving Heparin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor while a client is receiving Heparin. This test is used to assess the therapeutic levels of heparin in the blood, ensuring that the dose is within the safe and effective range. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage of Heparin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

2. A client has a new prescription for Atorvastatin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice when taking Atorvastatin. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of Atorvastatin, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can result in a higher risk of adverse effects, such as muscle pain and liver damage. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of Atorvastatin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While taking Atorvastatin with food may be recommended for some individuals to reduce stomach upset, it is not a crucial instruction. The timing of Atorvastatin administration can vary depending on individual needs and is not universally fixed to the morning. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Atorvastatin use and is not a standard precautionary measure associated with this medication.

3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

5. A client with breast cancer is being taught by a nurse about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. Chemotherapy can decrease platelet counts, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and oral trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines is crucial to prevent infections in immunocompromised clients. Aspirin should be avoided due to its blood-thinning effects that can increase the risk of bleeding. A diet low in protein is not recommended as cancer clients often require adequate protein intake for healing and recovery.

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