a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for heparin which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor while the client is

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client has a prescription for Heparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored while the client is receiving Heparin?

A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Complete blood count (CBC)
C. International normalized ratio (INR)
D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor while a client is receiving Heparin. This test is used to assess the therapeutic levels of heparin in the blood, ensuring that the dose is within the safe and effective range. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage of Heparin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

2. Which medication is a beta blocker?

A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
B. Verapamil (Calan)
C. Captopril (Capoten)
D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
B. 2+ pedal edema
C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

4. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?

A. Decreased fever
B. Decreased sense of anxiety
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Decreased seizure activity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?

A. Urine output
B. Bowel sounds
C. Pain level
D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.