Nursing Elites

1. During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, what action is crucial for a nurse to take?

• A. Administer meperidine for pain.
• B. Apply cold compresses to the child's joints.
• C. Limit the child's fluid intake.
• D. Maintain bed rest for the child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, maintaining bed rest is crucial to reduce oxygen consumption and alleviate pain. Movement can worsen the crisis by increasing sickling of red blood cells, leading to further tissue damage and pain. Bed rest helps to improve blood flow, reduce pain, and promote healing. Administering meperidine for pain (Choice A) is not recommended due to the risk of normeperidine accumulation and potential neurotoxicity. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) may cause vasoconstriction, worsening the vaso-occlusive crisis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice C) is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential to prevent dehydration and maintain blood flow.

2. What is the corrected age of a child born at 30 weeks gestation on May 2, 2014, who is being tested on August 5, 2014?

• A. 3 months
• B. 2 weeks
• C. 2.6 months
• D. 4 weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the corrected age of a premature child, you need to adjust for the weeks of prematurity. In this case, the child was born at 30 weeks gestation. From May 2, 2014, to August 5, 2014, is a span of 14 weeks. Subtracting the 30 weeks of gestation from the total time passed (14 weeks) gives the corrected age, which is 14 - 30 = -16 weeks. Since negative weeks are not relevant here, the corrected age is 0 weeks, which is equivalent to 2 weeks. Choice A is incorrect because 3 months is not the correct adjustment for the given scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a fractional value for age, which is not practical in this context. Choice D is incorrect as 4 weeks does not account for the weeks of prematurity.

3. A caregiver is providing teaching about car seat use to the mother of a six-month-old infant. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should secure the car seat using lower anchors and tethers instead of the seat belt
• B. I should position the car seat harness one inch above my baby's shoulders
• C. I will make sure that the car seat is placed at a 90-degree angle
• D. I will pad my baby's car seat with a blanket for traveling long distances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lower anchors and tethers, known as the LATCH child safety seat system, should be used to secure an infant's car seat in the vehicle. This system provides a safer and more secure way of installing the car seat compared to using the seat belt alone. Using the lower anchors and tethers ensures proper installation and reduces the risk of car seat movement during travel, providing optimal protection for the infant. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because the car seat harness should be positioned at or below the baby's shoulders, not above. Choice C is incorrect because the car seat should be positioned at the correct recline angle recommended by the car seat manufacturer, which may not necessarily be 90 degrees. Choice D is incorrect because adding padding like a blanket to the car seat is not recommended as it can interfere with the proper fit and function of the car seat, potentially compromising the safety of the infant.

4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

5. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

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