Nursing Elites

1. How does an occupational therapist use clinical guidelines to inform practice with children and youth?

• A. Modify guidelines to fit the specific environment
• B. Establish systems to monitor outcomes
• C. Select the most recent guidelines without considering the client
• D. Consider guidelines that fit one's clientele and environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using clinical guidelines to inform practice with children and youth, it is crucial for occupational therapists to not solely rely on the most recent guidelines but to consider the individual needs and contexts of each client. Selecting guidelines based solely on recency without considering the specific client can lead to ineffective or inappropriate interventions.

2. A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?

• A. Hypotonia and muscle instability
• B. Hypertonia and persistence of primitive reflexes
• C. Tremors and exaggerated posturing
• D. Hemiplegia and hypertonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In ataxic cerebral palsy, the characteristic features include hypotonia (low muscle tone) and muscle instability. These manifestations contribute to the infant's difficulty in achieving independent sitting. Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) and persistence of primitive reflexes, as mentioned in option B, are more commonly associated with other types of cerebral palsy like spastic CP. Tremors and exaggerated posturing (option C) are not typical features of ataxic CP. Hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body) and hypertonia (increased muscle tone) mentioned in option D are more commonly seen in other types of cerebral palsy, such as spastic CP.

3. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 15-month-old child. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of this vaccine?

• A. Family history of egg allergy
• B. Currently taking antibiotics
• C. History of asthma
• D. Presence of rhinorrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking antibiotics is a contraindication to receiving the MMR vaccine because antibiotics can potentially interfere with the effectiveness of the vaccine. It is essential to avoid administering the MMR vaccine while the child is on antibiotics to ensure the vaccine provides the intended protection.

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