Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

2. A parent of a preschooler is being taught by a nurse about administering ear drops. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will straighten my child's ear canal by pulling it upward and backward.
• B. I will administer the ear drops immediately after removing them from the refrigerator.
• C. I will pull the ear lobe down and back before administering the ear drops.
• D. I will massage my child's ear after administering the ear drops.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct administration of ear drops includes massaging the child's ear after administering the drops to facilitate proper absorption of the medication. This action helps ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A describes incorrect positioning of the ear canal, choice B mentions incorrect storage of the ear drops, and choice C describes an incorrect technique for administering ear drops.

3. While caring for four different pediatric clients, which child is at the highest risk for dehydration?

• A. 7-year-old child with migraine headaches
• B. 4-year-old child with a broken arm
• C. 2-year-old child with cellulitis of the left leg
• D. 18-month-old child with tachypnea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 18-month-old child with tachypnea is at the highest risk for dehydration due to increased insensible water loss associated with rapid breathing.

4. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

5. When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a cardiac monitor on the adolescent prior to the procedure
• B. Apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour prior to the procedure
• C. Keep the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure
• D. Restrict fluids for 2 hours following the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture is to apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour before the procedure. This helps reduce pain experienced during the lumbar puncture, making the procedure more comfortable for the adolescent. Placing a cardiac monitor on the adolescent is not necessary for a lumbar puncture. Keeping the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure is not a standard practice after a lumbar puncture. Restricting fluids for 2 hours following the procedure is not a requirement for a lumbar puncture preparation.

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