Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

2. Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?

• A. Periorbital ecchymosis
• B. Subdural hematoma
• C. Protruding bone
• D. Epidural hematoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.

3. When planning care for a pediatric client diagnosed with bacterial meningitis, what is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Impaired Gas Exchange
• B. Risk for Infection
• C. Anxiety (parental)
• D. Acute Pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis when caring for a pediatric client with bacterial meningitis is 'Impaired Gas Exchange.' This diagnosis takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory complications associated with the condition. Bacterial meningitis can lead to increased intracranial pressure, compromising the child's ability to ventilate adequately. Therefore, monitoring and addressing any signs of respiratory distress are crucial in the care of these patients.

4. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

5. A toddler in the emergency department has partial thickness burns on his right arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a nasogastric tube
• B. Initiate prophylactic antibiotic therapy
• C. Cleanse the affected area with mild soap and water
• D. Apply a topical corticosteroid to the affected area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a toddler has partial thickness burns, the nurse should cleanse the affected area with mild soap and water. This action helps remove any loose tissue that could lead to infection and prepares the area for appropriate wound care. Inserting a nasogastric tube (Choice A) is not indicated for a toddler with burns. Initiating prophylactic antibiotic therapy (Choice B) is not necessary for partial thickness burns unless there are signs of infection. Applying a topical corticosteroid (Choice D) is not recommended for initial management of burns as it can delay wound healing.

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