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ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.
- A. 440
- B. 400
- C. 410
- D. 450
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has a rotavirus infection. Which of the following is an expected manifestation?
- A. Constipation
- B. Vomiting
- C. Jaundice
- D. Abdominal pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vomiting is a common manifestation of rotavirus infection in children. Rotavirus typically presents with symptoms such as watery diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. Constipation, jaundice, and abdominal pain are less commonly associated with rotavirus infection in children.
3. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?
- A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
- B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
- C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
- D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.
4. During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, what intervention should be included in the plan of care for a child?
- A. Administer a loop diuretic.
- B. Provide a low-sodium diet.
- C. Weigh the child weekly.
- D. Provide a high-protein diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, the priority is managing fluid balance. Administering a loop diuretic is crucial to promote diuresis and reduce fluid retention, aiding in managing the condition effectively. Providing a low-sodium diet may be beneficial but is not the priority intervention during this phase. Weighing the child weekly is important for monitoring overall health but does not directly address the oliguric phase. Providing a high-protein diet is not typically recommended in acute kidney injury, especially during the oliguric phase, as it can put additional stress on the kidneys.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
- A. Bruising
- B. Petechiae
- C. Elevated WBC count
- D. Elevated platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding to report for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia is petechiae. Petechiae indicate a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare provider should promptly report petechiae to initiate appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding complications.
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