Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

2. A child has a brain tumor. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased head circumference
• B. Frequent headaches
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Increased blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with brain tumors commonly experience frequent headaches due to increased intracranial pressure. This pressure can result in pain and discomfort, leading to headaches as a common symptom. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, changes in vision, and behavioral changes, but headaches are a prominent feature in children with brain tumors.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

4. Which statement most reflects the observation that the infant sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and maintains a quiet alert state?

• A. This is atypical behavior and should be addressed
• B. The infant should remain on high alert when awake
• C. This shows the infant is making neurological gains
• D. The family is disrupting the child's sleep patterns

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A quiet alert state in infants indicates positive neurological development. It showcases the infant's ability to regulate sleep-wake cycles and maintain an optimal state for learning and interaction. Therefore, observing an infant who sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and stays in a quiet alert state is a reassuring sign of neurological gains and healthy development. Choice A is incorrect as it misinterprets normal behavior as atypical. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests the infant should be on high alert, which is not developmentally appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as it falsely blames the family for disrupting the child's sleep patterns, whereas the scenario described indicates positive neurological growth.

5. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

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