Nursing Elites

1. What does a Z-score of -3.00 indicate?

• A. The child's score indicates he is ahead of his peers and performing well
• B. The child's score places him within normal limits on this test item
• C. The test is inconclusive
• D. The child's score falls below the majority of his peers on this test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Z-score of -3.00 indicates that the child's performance is significantly below the average of their peers. It represents an extreme low score, indicating a substantial deviation from the mean performance of the group.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Bruising
• B. Petechiae
• C. Elevated WBC count
• D. Elevated platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding to report for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia is petechiae. Petechiae indicate a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare provider should promptly report petechiae to initiate appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding complications.

3. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

4. A 4-year-old client with intractable seizures has been on a ketogenic diet for the last 6 months, with a decrease in seizure activity. This child is now admitted to the pediatric unit with left-sided pain. Which possible complication to this diet does the nurse suspect?

• A. Appendicitis
• B. Bowel obstruction
• C. Urinary tract infection
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ketogenic diet increases the risk of kidney stones.

5. The caregiver is providing care to a pediatric client diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease, who is prescribed daily prednisone. Which caregiver statement regarding administration of this drug indicates correct understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider?

• A. I will administer this medication between meals.
• B. I will administer this medication at bedtime.
• C. I will administer this medication one hour before meals.
• D. I will administer this medication with meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Prednisone should be administered with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Taking prednisone with food helps to minimize stomach irritation and other gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication.

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