Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

2. A patient with Parkinson�s disease who takes levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) comes to the clinic for a semi-annual physical examination. Which question is the most important for that nurse to ask?

• A. Have you noticed any swelling in your feet?
• B. Are you having vivid dreams or hallucination?
• C. Have you noticed any changes in your stool?
• D. Have you had your flu vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) are at increased risk for the psychiatric side effects of levodopa, including visual hallucinations, vivid dreams, nightmares, and paranoid ideation. The other questions are not directly related to problems that are likely to occur with this drug.

3. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?

• A. Bloody urine
• B. One void since returning from surgery
• C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
• D. Double diapering from the previous shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.

4. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

5. A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?

• A. Hypotonia and muscle instability
• B. Hypertonia and persistence of primitive reflexes
• C. Tremors and exaggerated posturing
• D. Hemiplegia and hypertonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In ataxic cerebral palsy, the characteristic features include hypotonia (low muscle tone) and muscle instability. These manifestations contribute to the infant's difficulty in achieving independent sitting. Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) and persistence of primitive reflexes, as mentioned in option B, are more commonly associated with other types of cerebral palsy like spastic CP. Tremors and exaggerated posturing (option C) are not typical features of ataxic CP. Hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body) and hypertonia (increased muscle tone) mentioned in option D are more commonly seen in other types of cerebral palsy, such as spastic CP.

Similar Questions