ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
1. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?
- A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
- B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
- D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Steatorrhea
- B. Projectile vomiting
- C. Sunken abdomen
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a 9-month-old infant who just returned from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after a shunt placement for hydrocephalus. Which healthcare provider prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Vital signs and neurologic checks hourly
- B. Small, frequent formula feedings
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Daily head circumference measurements
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a child with hydrocephalus can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This can be counterproductive and may lead to complications after shunt placement surgery. Keeping the head of the bed flat or slightly elevated is often recommended to optimize cerebral perfusion and reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure.
4. While caring for four different pediatric clients, which child is at the highest risk for dehydration?
- A. 7-year-old child with migraine headaches
- B. 4-year-old child with a broken arm
- C. 2-year-old child with cellulitis of the left leg
- D. 18-month-old child with tachypnea
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 18-month-old child with tachypnea is at the highest risk for dehydration due to increased insensible water loss associated with rapid breathing.
5. Which type of food is the most difficult to swallow?
- A. Raw Vegetables
- B. Strained Fruit
- C. Chopped Meat
- D. Mashed Vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chopped meat is the most difficult to swallow as it requires thorough chewing and coordination to avoid swallowing hazards, making it more challenging compared to raw vegetables, strained fruit, and mashed vegetables.
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