Nursing Elites

1. A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?

• A. Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent
• B. Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic
• C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic
• D. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To induce diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids, a diuretic like Furosemide (Lasix) is appropriate. Furosemide helps increase urine production and reduce fluid retention. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly induce diuresis. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is not used to promote diuresis. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant, not an antisuppressant, and is not typically used to induce diuresis in nephrotic syndrome.

2. During a home care visit for an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux, which parental action observed requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. The infant's formula is mixed with rice cereal.
• B. The mother positions the infant in a high Fowler position while feeding.
• C. After feeding, the infant is placed in a car seat.
• D. The mother administers ranitidine (Zantac) to the infant using a syringe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux in a car seat after feeding can increase the risk of reflux and aspiration. The semi-upright or high Fowler position is recommended to help reduce reflux symptoms during feeding. Adding rice cereal to formula can help thicken it and reduce reflux episodes. Administering ranitidine using a syringe is a common method of oral medication administration. Therefore, the action of placing the infant in a car seat after feeding is the one that requires intervention due to the increased risk it poses.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Sunken abdomen
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should give your child his salmeterol inhaler every 4 hours when he is having an acute episode of wheezing.
• B. You should monitor your child's weight weekly while he is receiving inhaled corticosteroid therapy.
• C. Pulmonary function tests will be performed every 12 to 24 months to evaluate how your child is responding to therapy.
• D. When using the peak expiratory flow meter, record your child's average of three readings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parent that the child will need pulmonary function tests every 12 to 24 months to assess lung function and response to treatment. These tests help evaluate the presence of lung disease, monitor disease progression, and assess the effectiveness of the current therapeutic regimen in managing asthma. Choice A is incorrect as salmeterol is not used for acute wheezing episodes but rather for long-term maintenance. Choice B is incorrect because weight monitoring is not directly related to inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Choice D is incorrect as peak expiratory flow meter readings should be recorded as instructed, not averaged.

5. The 6-year-old child scheduled for an orchiopexy shyly asks the nurse, 'What are they going to do to me 'down there'? What is the nurse's best response?

• A. They are going to fix you up 'down there'.
• B. They will move your testicle from your abdomen to your scrotum.
• C. What do you think your doctor is going to do?
• D. You shouldn't worry. Your doctor knows exactly what to do.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the child to express his thoughts and feelings about the upcoming surgery. This approach helps the child feel heard and understood while providing an opportunity to address any misconceptions or fears. By asking the child what he thinks the doctor will do, the nurse engages the child in a conversation that can help alleviate anxiety and build trust. School-age children often have fears related to bodily harm, and open communication can help alleviate such concerns. Choices A and D do not encourage open communication or address the child's concerns directly. Choice B provides too much detail that may overwhelm the child and is not age-appropriate for a 6-year-old.

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