Nursing Elites

1. A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?

• A. Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent
• B. Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic
• C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic
• D. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To induce diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids, a diuretic like Furosemide (Lasix) is appropriate. Furosemide helps increase urine production and reduce fluid retention. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly induce diuresis. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is not used to promote diuresis. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant, not an antisuppressant, and is not typically used to induce diuresis in nephrotic syndrome.

2. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

3. A nurse is planning care for a 2-month-old infant who is postoperative following surgical repair of a cleft lip. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the infant on his abdomen
• B. Cleanse the incision site with hydrogen peroxide
• C. Offer the infant a pacifier
• D. Keep the infant's elbow restrained

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should keep the infant�s elbow restrained to prevent injury to the surgical site.

4. Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?

• A. The posterior fontanel is open.
• B. The infant has good head control when held upright.
• C. The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
• D. The anterior fontanel is open and soft.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.

5. When teaching a parent of a child with hemophilia, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer aspirin for pain.
• B. Avoid administering NSAIDs.
• C. Restrict physical activities.
• D. Apply heat to joints.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid administering NSAIDs.' Hemophilia is a condition where blood does not clot properly. NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) can increase the risk of bleeding in individuals with hemophilia. Therefore, it is crucial for the parent to avoid giving their child NSAIDs for pain management to prevent exacerbating bleeding tendencies. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, like NSAIDs, can also increase the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because physical activities should not be restricted but rather managed to prevent injuries that could lead to bleeding. Choice D is incorrect because applying heat to joints can worsen bleeding in individuals with hemophilia.

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