a nurse is assessing a child who has acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis apsgn which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A child is being assessed for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), hypertension is a common finding due to fluid retention and decreased kidney function. This condition often presents with hypertension as a result of sodium and water retention, as well as reduced glomerular filtration rate. Hematuria, not diarrhea, is also a common symptom of APSGN due to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli. Polyuria, an increase in urine output, is not a typical finding in APSGN unless severe kidney damage leads to decreased urine concentrating ability.

2. When educating a parent of an infant with a new prescription for digoxin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor the infant's heart rate prior to administering the medication.' It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the infant's heart rate before giving digoxin to identify any signs of digoxin toxicity early. Heart rate assessment helps in detecting and preventing potential complications associated with digoxin use. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Repeating the dose if the infant vomits can lead to overdose, mixing the medication with food may alter its absorption, and giving the medication with meals can affect its effectiveness. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the infant's heart rate to ensure safe administration of digoxin.

3. Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.

4. What type of mode best describes Kasey's approach when meeting with the principal to change the cafeteria to better accommodate her client with difficulty eating in a noisy and distracting environment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Advocating best describes Kasey's approach in this scenario. Advocating involves presenting stories, research, and ideas to support and champion for a specific cause or individual, in this case, advocating for changes to better meet the child's needs in the cafeteria. Collaborating involves working together with others towards a common goal, instructing involves providing guidance or directions, and encouraging involves giving support or motivation, none of which fully capture Kasey's proactive and supportive advocacy actions in this context.

5. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

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