Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Offer small, frequent meals.
• B. Limit the toddler's physical activity.
• C. Provide a low-sodium diet.
• D. Monitor the toddler's intake and output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease is to offer small, frequent meals. This recommendation helps reduce the cardiac workload on the child's heart and supports easier digestion and nutrient absorption, promoting the child's overall health. Limiting physical activity (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this case. While offering a low-sodium diet (choice C) can be beneficial, it is not the most critical instruction. Monitoring the toddler's intake and output (choice D) is important but not as essential as providing small, frequent meals to support the child's heart health.

2. An adolescent client reports recurrent abdominal pain with diarrhea and bloody stools. Which type of inflammatory bowel disease does the nurse suspect based on these data?

• A. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
• B. Ulcerative colitis (UC)
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Appendicitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease characterized by recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. The symptoms described align with the clinical presentation of ulcerative colitis, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario. Necrotizing enterocolitis primarily affects premature infants, Crohn's disease typically presents with non-bloody diarrhea, and appendicitis is characterized by right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Therefore, based on the symptoms provided, ulcerative colitis is the most appropriate suspicion.

3. Mary is excited to work with the family of a friend with whom she has lost contact. Mary hopes the family will be able to connect her with her friend and is looking forward to hearing about her friend. At the next session, she asks the mother many questions about her friend and they spend a lot of time discussing their home town, etc. Which statement describes this scenario?

• A. It is not therapeutic: The relationship serves no purpose
• B. It is therapeutic: Therapist, child, and family have a reciprocal caring relationship
• C. It is not therapeutic: Mary is benefiting, but not the child and family
• D. It is therapeutic: Both parties are benefiting in the relationship

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, Mary's focus on her own needs and interests by asking the mother about her lost friend and hometown indicates a lack of therapeutic benefit for the child and family. Effective therapy should prioritize the needs and goals of the child and family, not the therapist's personal desires or connections. Therefore, this interaction is not therapeutic as it fails to address the primary purpose of the therapy, which is to benefit the child and family. Choice A is incorrect because while the relationship may not be therapeutic, it does serve a purpose for Mary. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of a reciprocal caring relationship in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as the focus is primarily on Mary's personal interests, rather than mutual benefit in the therapeutic relationship.

4. When teaching a parent of a toddler with a new prescription for liquid ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Mix the medication with milk.
• B. Give the medication with orange juice.
• C. Give the medication with meals.
• D. Administer the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medication with orange juice. Orange juice helps increase the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate. This acidic environment aids in the absorption of iron, making it a suitable choice for administration. Mixing the medication with milk or an antacid may decrease iron absorption, and giving it with meals may not optimize its absorption as effectively as with orange juice.

5. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

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