Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Offer small, frequent meals.
• B. Limit the toddler's physical activity.
• C. Provide a low-sodium diet.
• D. Monitor the toddler's intake and output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease is to offer small, frequent meals. This recommendation helps reduce the cardiac workload on the child's heart and supports easier digestion and nutrient absorption, promoting the child's overall health. Limiting physical activity (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this case. While offering a low-sodium diet (choice C) can be beneficial, it is not the most critical instruction. Monitoring the toddler's intake and output (choice D) is important but not as essential as providing small, frequent meals to support the child's heart health.

2. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

3. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

4. A 4-year-old client with intractable seizures has been on a ketogenic diet for the last 6 months, with a decrease in seizure activity. This child is now admitted to the pediatric unit with left-sided pain. Which possible complication to this diet does the nurse suspect?

• A. Appendicitis
• B. Bowel obstruction
• C. Urinary tract infection
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ketogenic diet increases the risk of kidney stones.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Seizures
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.

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