Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment data would cause suspicion that a 3-year-old child has Hirschsprung disease?

• A. Clay-colored stools and dark urine
• B. History of early passage of meconium in the newborn period
• C. History of chronic, progressive constipation and failure to gain weight
• D. Continual bouts of foul-smelling diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hirschsprung disease is characterized by chronic, progressive constipation and failure to gain weight. These symptoms are indicative of the disorder due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon, leading to impaired motility and obstruction.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a school-age child who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Elevate the head of the child's bed
• B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter for the child
• C. Determine the allergen that caused the child's reaction
• D. Administer IM epinephrine to the child

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of anaphylaxis, the priority action for the nurse is to administer IM epinephrine to the child. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse the severe manifestations of the reaction by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and decreasing hives and swelling. Elevating the head of the child's bed may be beneficial for respiratory distress but is not the priority over administering epinephrine. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter may be necessary for fluid resuscitation but is not the initial priority. Identifying the allergen is important for prevention and future management but is not the immediate action needed in the acute phase of an anaphylactic reaction.

4. A child is being treated for dehydration with intravenous fluids. The child currently weighs 13 kg and is estimated to have lost 7% of his normal body weight. The nurse is double-checking the IV rate the healthcare provider prescribed. The formula the healthcare provider used was for maintenance fluids: 1000 mL for 10 kg of body weight plus 50 mL for every kilogram over 10 for 24 hours. Replacement fluid is the percentage of lost body weight � 10 per kg of body weight. According to the calculation for maintenance plus replacement fluid, which hourly IV rate will the nurse implement for 24 hours?

• A. 88 mL/hr
• B. 86 mL/hr
• C. 81 mL/hr
• D. 83 mL/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For 13 kg, the maintenance fluid is 1150 mL (1000 mL for first 10 kg + 3*50 mL for the remaining 3 kg). Replacement fluid is 910 mL (0.07 * 13000 mL). Total fluid is 2060 mL, divided by 24 hours is 86 mL/hr.

5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

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