Nursing Elites

1. What does the abbreviation BPD mean in a medical chart?

• A. Brain premature deficit
• B. Bronchiopulmonary dysplasia
• C. Bilateral partial disorder
• D. Baby post delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchiopulmonary Dysplasia. BPD refers to a chronic lung disorder that primarily affects premature infants or those who have been on ventilator support. It is characterized by abnormal development of the lungs and breathing difficulties. This abbreviation is commonly seen on medical charts in neonatal and pediatric settings.

2. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

3. A parent of a preschooler is being taught by a nurse about administering ear drops. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will straighten my child's ear canal by pulling it upward and backward.
• B. I will administer the ear drops immediately after removing them from the refrigerator.
• C. I will pull the ear lobe down and back before administering the ear drops.
• D. I will massage my child's ear after administering the ear drops.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct administration of ear drops includes massaging the child's ear after administering the drops to facilitate proper absorption of the medication. This action helps ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A describes incorrect positioning of the ear canal, choice B mentions incorrect storage of the ear drops, and choice C describes an incorrect technique for administering ear drops.

4. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

5. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

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