a nurse is assessing a child who has nephrotic syndrome which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN Pediatric Nursing 2023 ATI

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to protein loss in the urine. This results in hypoalbuminemia, causing fluid retention and edema. Therefore, weight gain due to fluid retention is a common finding in children with nephrotic syndrome.

2. When a patient is taking glucocorticoids and digoxin, which electrolyte should the nurse prioritize monitoring?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should primarily monitor potassium levels in a patient taking glucocorticoids and digoxin. Glucocorticoids can lead to potassium loss, potentially increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity. Additionally, glucocorticoids may worsen hypokalemia induced by diuretics like thiazides and loops. While calcium, magnesium, and sodium are important electrolytes to monitor in various clinical situations, they are not the priority in this specific scenario of a patient on glucocorticoids and digoxin.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a vaccine to a child who has hemophilia. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the vaccine intramuscularly to a child with hemophilia is preferred to reduce the risk of bleeding. Hemophiliac individuals have a decreased ability to form blood clots, and administering vaccines intramuscularly reduces the risk of bleeding compared to subcutaneous administration. Using an appropriate needle length and applying pressure to the site post-injection are important steps, but choosing the intramuscular route is crucial in this case to minimize bleeding complications.

4. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

5. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

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