Nursing Elites

1.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

2. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

3. What is the corrected age of a child born at 30 weeks gestation on May 2, 2014, who is being tested on August 5, 2014?

• A. 3 months
• B. 2 weeks
• C. 2.6 months
• D. 4 weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the corrected age of a premature child, you need to adjust for the weeks of prematurity. In this case, the child was born at 30 weeks gestation. From May 2, 2014, to August 5, 2014, is a span of 14 weeks. Subtracting the 30 weeks of gestation from the total time passed (14 weeks) gives the corrected age, which is 14 - 30 = -16 weeks. Since negative weeks are not relevant here, the corrected age is 0 weeks, which is equivalent to 2 weeks. Choice A is incorrect because 3 months is not the correct adjustment for the given scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a fractional value for age, which is not practical in this context. Choice D is incorrect as 4 weeks does not account for the weeks of prematurity.

4. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

5. When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer antibiotics IM once per day.
• B. Initiate droplet precautions.
• C. Place the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room.
• D. Suction the nasopharynx as needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), maintaining a patent airway is crucial. Suctioning the nasopharynx as needed helps clear secretions, prevent airway obstruction, and promote effective breathing. This intervention can aid in improving the infant's respiratory status and overall comfort. Administering antibiotics IM once per day (Choice A) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Initiating droplet precautions (Choice B) is important to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV, but directly caring for the infant involves more specific interventions. Placing the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room (Choice C) is generally reserved for airborne infections, not RSV which spreads through respiratory droplets.

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