ATI RN
RN Pediatric Nursing 2023 ATI
1. The healthcare provider is providing care to a child who was treated with aspirin during a viral infection. Which clinical manifestations should cause the healthcare provider concern?
- A. Nausea, vomiting, and confusion
- B. Headache, vomiting, and seizures
- C. Sore throat, moist respirations, and cough
- D. Fever, rash, and photophobia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and confusion are concerning as they are indicative of Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious condition associated with aspirin use in children during viral illnesses. Reye's syndrome can lead to severe complications, including brain and liver damage, hence prompt recognition and management are crucial.
2. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?
- A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
- B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
- C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
- D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.
3. When providing teaching to the family of a school-age child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Limit the child's movement of the large joints.
- B. Encourage the child to perform independent self-care.
- C. Provide the child with a soft mattress for sleeping.
- D. Schedule a 2-hour daily nap for the child in the afternoon.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the child to perform independent self-care is essential when managing juvenile idiopathic arthritis. This instruction helps minimize pain and stiffness in the child's joints while promoting mobility and independence. It is crucial for the child to learn self-management skills early to cope better with the condition in the long term.
4. A child is admitted to the hospital for hypercalcemia and is placed on diuretic therapy. Which diuretic would the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Aquazide)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney to increase calcium excretion. In the setting of hypercalcemia, where there is an elevated level of calcium in the blood, Furosemide can help promote the elimination of excess calcium through the urine, thereby aiding in the management of hypercalcemia.
5. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?
- A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
- B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
- C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
- D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.
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