Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the child to sleep for 8 hours each night.
• B. Perform range-of-motion exercises once per week.
• C. Give your child NSAIDs on a regular schedule.
• D. Apply heat to the child's affected joints twice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the parent to give the child NSAIDs on a regular schedule to maintain therapeutic levels and control pain.

3. Which food should be avoided by a child with acute glomerulonephritis to prevent hyperkalemia, as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Dairy products
• B. Whole-grain cereals
• C. Organ meats
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium, which can contribute to hyperkalemia in individuals with acute glomerulonephritis. It is essential to limit potassium intake to prevent further complications associated with high potassium levels in the blood.

4. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

5. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

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