ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You should offer your child high-protein meals and snacks throughout the day
- B. Your child should decrease dietary fats to less than 10% of their caloric intake
- C. Your child will need to take a 1-gram sodium chloride tablet daily throughout their lifetime
- D. You should calculate your child's carbohydrate needs based on their daily activities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The parent should provide a well-balanced diet that is high in protein and calories for a child with cystic fibrosis. This diet helps meet the child's increased energy requirements. Offering high-protein meals and snacks throughout the day is essential to ensure adequate nutrition and energy intake for children with cystic fibrosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because children with cystic fibrosis actually need a higher fat intake for proper absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, sodium chloride supplementation is not a general recommendation for all children with cystic fibrosis, and carbohydrate needs are usually based on maintaining adequate weight and growth rather than daily activities.
2. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Hyperthermia
- B. Respiratory distress
- C. Seizures
- D. Cardiac arrhythmias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.
3. Which urinary diversion procedure is the least damaging to the body image of the adolescent?
- A. Urostomy
- B. Ileal conduit
- C. Nephrostomy
- D. Suprapubic placement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ileal conduit. The ileal conduit diverts urine to the colon, and the urine is excreted with the feces. Unlike urostomy, nephrostomy, and suprapubic placement, the ileal conduit does not require an external appliance, which can be less damaging to an adolescent's body image.
4. Which strategy is most effective in preventing existing challenging behaviors?
- A. Ignoring the behaviors
- B. Individualized interventions
- C. Providing flexible rules
- D. Punishment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Individualized interventions are tailored to address the specific needs and triggers of the individual's challenging behaviors. By customizing the approach to each person, it increases the likelihood of effectively preventing and managing the existing challenging behaviors.
5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?
- A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
- B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
- C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
- D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.
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