Nursing Elites

1. A post-op patient has an epidural infusion of morphine sulfate. The patient�s respiratory rate declines to 8 breaths/minute. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
• C. Methyprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
• D. Protamine Sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effects, both adverse and therapeutic, of opioid narcotic analgesics.

2. Which assessment finding, after the dialysate is drained during peritoneal dialysis for a child experiencing acute renal failure, would warrant further action by the nurse?

• A. The dialysate is clear upon return.
• B. The volume of drained dialysate is less than the volume infused.
• C. The child is restless and eager to play.
• D. The child's vital signs remain consistent with those noted during infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lower volume of drained dialysate compared to the volume infused suggests a possible obstruction or malfunction in the dialysis process. This finding could compromise the effectiveness of the treatment and needs prompt assessment and intervention by the nurse to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of complications during peritoneal dialysis. The clarity of the dialysate, the child's behavior, and the consistency of vital signs are not alarming findings that would require immediate action by the nurse.

3. The caregiver is providing care to a pediatric client diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease, who is prescribed daily prednisone. Which caregiver statement regarding administration of this drug indicates correct understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider?

• A. I will administer this medication between meals.
• B. I will administer this medication at bedtime.
• C. I will administer this medication one hour before meals.
• D. I will administer this medication with meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Prednisone should be administered with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Taking prednisone with food helps to minimize stomach irritation and other gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication.

4. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing abdominal girth for a pediatric client who presents with abdominal distension. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Measuring the girth just below the umbilicus
• B. Measuring the girth just below the sternum
• C. Measuring the girth just above the pubic bone
• D. Measuring the girth around the largest portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the girth around the largest portion of the abdomen ensures accurate assessment and tracking of abdominal distension. This method provides a more comprehensive measurement and helps healthcare providers monitor changes effectively.

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