a nurse is assessing a three year old toddler at a well child visit which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN Pediatric Nursing 2023 ATI

1. During a well-child visit, a nurse is assessing a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 45/min is above the expected reference range for a 3-year-old toddler and may indicate respiratory dysfunction or acute respiratory distress. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

2. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

3. In the management of heart failure, which diuretic is preferred due to its demonstrated significant mortality reduction in patients with heart failure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice in heart failure due to its cardio-protective effect, leading to reduced mortality in patients with heart failure. It is used to manage both hypertension and edema, making it a valuable option in heart failure treatment.

4. A toddler has minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) and 3+ pitting edema. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) in children with pitting edema, corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and decrease proteinuria, addressing the underlying cause of MCNS. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize administering the prescribed corticosteroids to the toddler as part of the plan of care.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a school-age child who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of anaphylaxis, the priority action for the nurse is to administer IM epinephrine to the child. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse the severe manifestations of the reaction by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and decreasing hives and swelling. Elevating the head of the child's bed may be beneficial for respiratory distress but is not the priority over administering epinephrine. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter may be necessary for fluid resuscitation but is not the initial priority. Identifying the allergen is important for prevention and future management but is not the immediate action needed in the acute phase of an anaphylactic reaction.

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