Nursing Elites

1. A teacher states to the school nurse, 'I have a student who will often just stare at me for 15 seconds after asking a question; then the student blinks and asks me to repeat the question. Should I be concerned?' Which should the nurse include in the response to the teacher?

• A. The child has a crush on the teacher.
• B. The child has increased intracranial pressure.
• C. The child may have had a head injury.
• D. The child is experiencing absence seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Staring spells that end abruptly and are followed by normal activity are indicative of absence seizures. In absence seizures, a child may exhibit staring spells, brief loss of awareness, and lack of responsiveness, which can last for a few seconds. Choice A is incorrect because the behavior described is not associated with having a crush. Choice B is incorrect as increased intracranial pressure usually presents with other symptoms. Choice C is less likely as a head injury would typically manifest with additional signs beyond just staring and blinking.

2. A nurse is teaching a parent of a child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will notify my child's school about his condition.
• B. I will encourage my child to eat a carbohydrate snack if his blood glucose is low.
• C. I will rotate injection sites each time I give my child insulin.
• D. I will ensure my child receives the flu vaccine every year.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the parent to rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage and improve insulin absorption.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of digoxin. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Analyze HR and rhythm
• B. Assess for Homan�s sign
• C. Check BP
• D. Palpate the pedal pulses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before giving digoxin, the nurse will assess the HR and rhythm. The dosage will be held and the prescriber notified if the HR is below 60 bpm or if the cardiac rhythm has changes. Digoxin can cause bradycardia and electrical changes in the heart.

4. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

5. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

Similar Questions