Nursing Elites

1. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

2. When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a cardiac monitor on the adolescent prior to the procedure
• B. Apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour prior to the procedure
• C. Keep the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure
• D. Restrict fluids for 2 hours following the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture is to apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour before the procedure. This helps reduce pain experienced during the lumbar puncture, making the procedure more comfortable for the adolescent. Placing a cardiac monitor on the adolescent is not necessary for a lumbar puncture. Keeping the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure is not a standard practice after a lumbar puncture. Restricting fluids for 2 hours following the procedure is not a requirement for a lumbar puncture preparation.

3. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

4. When teaching a parent of a toddler with a new prescription for liquid ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Mix the medication with milk.
• B. Give the medication with orange juice.
• C. Give the medication with meals.
• D. Administer the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medication with orange juice. Orange juice helps increase the absorption of iron from ferrous sulfate. This acidic environment aids in the absorption of iron, making it a suitable choice for administration. Mixing the medication with milk or an antacid may decrease iron absorption, and giving it with meals may not optimize its absorption as effectively as with orange juice.

5. During a well-child visit, a nurse is assessing a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 90/50
• B. Respiratory rate 45/min
• C. Weight 14.5 kg or 32 lb
• D. Heart rate 110/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 45/min is above the expected reference range for a 3-year-old toddler and may indicate respiratory dysfunction or acute respiratory distress. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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