Nursing Elites

1. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

2. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

3. When developing a home program for self-care, which approach is the most effective?

• A. Require the parent to practice the steps regularly and track progress.
• B. Introduce new home programs weekly with clear instructions for the parent to follow.
• C. List all the steps and have the parent teach them to the child without practicing.
• D. Practice the new steps until the child is ready to independently perform them at home.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective approach when developing a home program for self-care is to practice the new steps with the child until they are capable of independently carrying them out at home. This method ensures that the child has mastered the skills before transitioning to independent implementation. It is essential for the child's success in self-care activities and promotes their autonomy and confidence. Requiring the parent to practice the steps regularly and track progress, introducing new programs weekly, or having the parent teach the steps without practice may not be as beneficial in fostering the child's independence and skill acquisition.

4. A patient is prescribed fluconazole (Diflucan) for a vaginal yeast infection. The nurse should be concerned if the patient is also taking which medication?

• A. Losartan (Cozaar)
• B. Simvastatin (Zocor)
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• D. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When fluconazole is taken with statins like simvastatin, it can increase the levels of the statin in the blood, potentially leading to adverse effects such as muscle pain and weakness. Therefore, the nurse should be concerned if the patient is taking simvastatin along with fluconazole.

5. During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, what action is crucial for a nurse to take?

• A. Administer meperidine for pain.
• B. Apply cold compresses to the child's joints.
• C. Limit the child's fluid intake.
• D. Maintain bed rest for the child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, maintaining bed rest is crucial to reduce oxygen consumption and alleviate pain. Movement can worsen the crisis by increasing sickling of red blood cells, leading to further tissue damage and pain. Bed rest helps to improve blood flow, reduce pain, and promote healing. Administering meperidine for pain (Choice A) is not recommended due to the risk of normeperidine accumulation and potential neurotoxicity. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) may cause vasoconstriction, worsening the vaso-occlusive crisis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice C) is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential to prevent dehydration and maintain blood flow.

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