ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
- C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
- D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.
2. Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?
- A. The posterior fontanel is open.
- B. The infant has good head control when held upright.
- C. The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
- D. The anterior fontanel is open and soft.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.
3. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?
- A. Dress the infant in light, breathable clothing.
- B. Turn and reposition the infant every 4 hours.
- C. Offer the infant frequent, small feedings.
- D. Avoid using lotions on the infant's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.
4. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?
- A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
- B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
- D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.
5. During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, what intervention should be included in the plan of care for a child?
- A. Administer a loop diuretic.
- B. Provide a low-sodium diet.
- C. Weigh the child weekly.
- D. Provide a high-protein diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, the priority is managing fluid balance. Administering a loop diuretic is crucial to promote diuresis and reduce fluid retention, aiding in managing the condition effectively. Providing a low-sodium diet may be beneficial but is not the priority intervention during this phase. Weighing the child weekly is important for monitoring overall health but does not directly address the oliguric phase. Providing a high-protein diet is not typically recommended in acute kidney injury, especially during the oliguric phase, as it can put additional stress on the kidneys.
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