Nursing Elites

1. How should professionals communicate with parents and family members?

• A. Share information with both parents to distribute the stress equally
• B. Share information with one parent to ensure accuracy
• C. Share information with all individuals who interact with the child, whether family or not
• D. Provide information in writing exclusively to ensure clear communication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When professionals communicate with parents and family members, it is essential to share information with all individuals who interact with the child, whether they are family members or not. This inclusive approach ensures that everyone involved in the child's care and well-being is well-informed and can provide support as needed. It is important to consider the broader network of individuals who play a role in the child's life to promote comprehensive and effective communication.

2. At what age may an infant close their eyes to bright lights and show improved head control?

• A. 30-33 weeks after conception
• B. 34-36 weeks after conception
• C. Less than 30 weeks after conception
• D. 37-40 weeks after conception

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Around 30-33 weeks after conception, infants usually start closing their eyes in response to bright lights and exhibit enhanced head control. This developmental milestone indicates progress in their visual and motor abilities, reflecting the maturation of their neurological system. As preterm infants continue to grow and develop, they gradually acquire these skills, showcasing the natural progression of their sensory and motor functions.

3. Which is the priority nursing assessment when providing care for an infant at risk for dehydration?

• A. Urine output
• B. Urine specific gravity
• C. Vital signs
• D. Daily weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Daily weight. Daily weight is a crucial assessment in infants at risk for dehydration because changes in weight can indicate fluid balance and dehydration status. It is essential to monitor daily weight to promptly identify and manage dehydration in infants.

4. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

5. Which urinary diversion procedure is the least damaging to the body image of the adolescent?

• A. Urostomy
• B. Ileal conduit
• C. Nephrostomy
• D. Suprapubic placement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ileal conduit. The ileal conduit diverts urine to the colon, and the urine is excreted with the feces. Unlike urostomy, nephrostomy, and suprapubic placement, the ileal conduit does not require an external appliance, which can be less damaging to an adolescent's body image.

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