Nursing Elites

1. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

2. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

3. When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer antibiotics IM once per day.
• B. Initiate droplet precautions.
• C. Place the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room.
• D. Suction the nasopharynx as needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), maintaining a patent airway is crucial. Suctioning the nasopharynx as needed helps clear secretions, prevent airway obstruction, and promote effective breathing. This intervention can aid in improving the infant's respiratory status and overall comfort. Administering antibiotics IM once per day (Choice A) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Initiating droplet precautions (Choice B) is important to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV, but directly caring for the infant involves more specific interventions. Placing the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room (Choice C) is generally reserved for airborne infections, not RSV which spreads through respiratory droplets.

4. A child is being cared for by a nurse and has rheumatic fever. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer aspirin to the child as prescribed based on the healthcare provider's instructions.
• B. Encourage adequate fluid intake for the child.
• C. Elevate the child's joints and provide warm compresses.
• D. Monitor the child's heart rate for dysrhythmias.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rheumatic fever can lead to cardiac complications, such as dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the child's heart rate closely for any signs of dysrhythmias. This will help in early identification and prompt management of potential cardiac issues associated with rheumatic fever. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority actions in this scenario. While aspirin may be used in the treatment of rheumatic fever, monitoring for cardiac complications takes precedence. Encouraging fluid intake and providing warm compresses are helpful interventions but do not directly address the cardiac risks associated with rheumatic fever.

5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

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