ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. In the management of heart failure, which diuretic is preferred due to its demonstrated significant mortality reduction in patients with heart failure?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice in heart failure due to its cardio-protective effect, leading to reduced mortality in patients with heart failure. It is used to manage both hypertension and edema, making it a valuable option in heart failure treatment.
2. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Hyperthermia
- B. Respiratory distress
- C. Seizures
- D. Cardiac arrhythmias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.
3. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?
- A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
- B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
- C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
- D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.
4. A teacher states to the school nurse, 'I have a student who will often just stare at me for 15 seconds after asking a question; then the student blinks and asks me to repeat the question. Should I be concerned?' Which should the nurse include in the response to the teacher?
- A. The child has a crush on the teacher.
- B. The child has increased intracranial pressure.
- C. The child may have had a head injury.
- D. The child is experiencing absence seizures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Staring spells that end abruptly and are followed by normal activity are indicative of absence seizures. In absence seizures, a child may exhibit staring spells, brief loss of awareness, and lack of responsiveness, which can last for a few seconds. Choice A is incorrect because the behavior described is not associated with having a crush. Choice B is incorrect as increased intracranial pressure usually presents with other symptoms. Choice C is less likely as a head injury would typically manifest with additional signs beyond just staring and blinking.
5. What is the next food texture after 'soft and bite-sized pieces of meltable and soft-solid foods'?
- A. Regular
- B. Liquidized
- C. Pur�ed
- D. Minced and Moist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After mastering soft and bite-sized pieces, children typically progress to regular table foods.
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