Nursing Elites

1. In the management of heart failure, which diuretic is preferred due to its demonstrated significant mortality reduction in patients with heart failure?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice in heart failure due to its cardio-protective effect, leading to reduced mortality in patients with heart failure. It is used to manage both hypertension and edema, making it a valuable option in heart failure treatment.

2. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
• B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
• C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
• D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.

3. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
• B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
• C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
• D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�

Correct answer: D

Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.

4. A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaphylaxis triggered by a peanut allergy, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. The appropriate medication for anaphylaxis is epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing bronchial muscles, and reducing laryngeal edema, making it the drug of choice for this situation. Promethazine, diphenhydramine, and hydroxyzine are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Promethazine is an antihistamine with sedative effects, Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, and Hydroxyzine is also an antihistamine with sedative properties. While these medications can help with mild allergic reactions, they are not as effective or fast-acting as epinephrine in treating the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis.

5. During an assessment, which manifestation should a healthcare provider expect in an infant with pyloric stenosis?

• A. Bile-stained vomitus
• B. Distended abdomen
• C. Olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
• D. Painless, swollen joints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. This mass can often be palpated during an assessment and is a key characteristic of this condition. Bile-stained vomitus may be seen in conditions such as intestinal obstruction; a distended abdomen can be a nonspecific sign of various conditions, and painless, swollen joints are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.

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