Nursing Elites

1. In the management of heart failure, which diuretic is preferred due to its demonstrated significant mortality reduction in patients with heart failure?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice in heart failure due to its cardio-protective effect, leading to reduced mortality in patients with heart failure. It is used to manage both hypertension and edema, making it a valuable option in heart failure treatment.

2. A child has a brain tumor. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased head circumference
• B. Frequent headaches
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Increased blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with brain tumors commonly experience frequent headaches due to increased intracranial pressure. This pressure can result in pain and discomfort, leading to headaches as a common symptom. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, changes in vision, and behavioral changes, but headaches are a prominent feature in children with brain tumors.

3. A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?

• A. Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent
• B. Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic
• C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic
• D. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To induce diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids, a diuretic like Furosemide (Lasix) is appropriate. Furosemide helps increase urine production and reduce fluid retention. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly induce diuresis. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is not used to promote diuresis. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant, not an antisuppressant, and is not typically used to induce diuresis in nephrotic syndrome.

4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

5. Which statement is true regarding playful children?

• A. They exhibit flexible problem-solving.
• B. They have low intelligence scores.
• C. They need clear rules and directions to succeed.
• D. They do not perform well in school.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that playful children exhibit flexible problem-solving. Playful children often engage in creative and imaginative thinking, allowing them to approach problems in unique ways. This fosters better problem-solving abilities compared to those who may be more rigid in their thinking. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between being playful and having low intelligence scores. Choice C is incorrect as playful children may thrive in environments that encourage creativity rather than rigid rules. Choice D is incorrect as being playful does not necessarily equate to poor academic performance.

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