Nursing Elites

1. When teaching an adolescent about managing tinea pedis, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should buy some plastic shoes to wear at the swimming pool
• B. I should wear sandals as much as possible
• C. I should place the permethrin cream between my toes twice daily
• D. I should seal my non-washable shoes in plastic bags for a couple of weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wearing sandals allows air circulation around the feet, reducing perspiration and eliminating the environment for bacteria and fungus to thrive. This promotes the healing of the fungal infection. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

2. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Seizures
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.

3. Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?

• A. Periorbital ecchymosis
• B. Subdural hematoma
• C. Protruding bone
• D. Epidural hematoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.

4. A toddler is admitted to the surgical unit for a planned closure of a temporary colostomy. Which medical prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Clear liquids today, NPO tomorrow
• B. Type and cross-match for 1 unit of packed red blood cells
• C. Rectal temperatures every 4 hours
• D. Start an intravenous line with D5NS at 20 mL per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rectal temperatures should be avoided in a toddler with a colostomy due to the risk of injury. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate medical prescriptions for a toddler undergoing colostomy closure. Choice A ensures the toddler's intake of clear liquids before being made NPO, choice B prepares for possible blood transfusion needs, and choice D initiates intravenous hydration with D5NS at an appropriate rate.

5. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch�s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

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