ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
- B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
- C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.
2. What is the next food texture after 'soft and bite-sized pieces of meltable and soft-solid foods'?
- A. Regular
- B. Liquidized
- C. Pur�ed
- D. Minced and Moist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After mastering soft and bite-sized pieces, children typically progress to regular table foods.
3. Which statement is not part of the developmental care approach?
- A. Family-centered care
- B. Care on a sliding payment scale
- C. Healing environment
- D. Protected sleep
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The developmental care approach emphasizes creating an environment that supports the infant's developmental needs, including family-centered care, a healing environment, and promoting protected sleep. Payment scale considerations are not a component of developmental care.
4. The healthcare provider is preparing medication instructions for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the provider about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the healthcare provider include in the response?
- A. Suppress rejection
- B. Decrease pain
- C. Improve circulation
- D. Boost immunity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cyclosporine is used to suppress the immune system and prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. It helps to reduce the risk of the body attacking and rejecting the new organ. This medication is crucial in ensuring the success of the kidney transplant by keeping the immune system in check.
5. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
- A. Angina Pectoris
- B. Essential HTN
- C. Atrial Fibrillation
- D. Vasospastic Angina
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.
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