Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis has gross hematuria and has been confined to bed. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this child?

• A. Providing activities for the child on restricted activity
• B. Feeding the child a protein-restricted diet
• C. Carefully handling edematous extremities
• D. Observing the child for evidence of hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a 7-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis experiencing gross hematuria and bed rest is to provide activities for the child on restricted activity. It is important to keep the child engaged in light activities to prevent boredom and maintain some level of physical and mental well-being. Feeding a protein-restricted diet (Choice B) is not typically indicated in this scenario unless ordered by a healthcare provider to manage kidney function. Carefully handling edematous extremities (Choice C) is important in conditions like nephrotic syndrome but is not directly related to providing appropriate care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis. Observing the child for evidence of hypotension (Choice D) is important in general nursing care but is not the most immediate or specific intervention needed for a child with acute glomerulonephritis experiencing gross hematuria and bed rest.

2. A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?

• A. Hypotonia and muscle instability
• B. Hypertonia and persistence of primitive reflexes
• C. Tremors and exaggerated posturing
• D. Hemiplegia and hypertonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In ataxic cerebral palsy, the characteristic features include hypotonia (low muscle tone) and muscle instability. These manifestations contribute to the infant's difficulty in achieving independent sitting. Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) and persistence of primitive reflexes, as mentioned in option B, are more commonly associated with other types of cerebral palsy like spastic CP. Tremors and exaggerated posturing (option C) are not typical features of ataxic CP. Hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body) and hypertonia (increased muscle tone) mentioned in option D are more commonly seen in other types of cerebral palsy, such as spastic CP.

3. A pediatric client is admitted to the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that caused a loss of consciousness. The last set of vital signs showed heart rate 48, blood pressure (BP) 148/74 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 and irregular. What does the nurse suspect based on these data?

• A. Spinal cord injury
• B. Increased intracranial pressure
• C. Typical for sleep
• D. Improvement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The vital signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations indicate increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia (heart rate of 48), hypertension (blood pressure of 148/74 mmHg), and irregular respirations are typical signs of increased intracranial pressure in a pediatric client with a traumatic brain injury and loss of consciousness.

4. Why is it important to assess for in a child receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Infection
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Easy bruising
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child is receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome, it is crucial to assess for infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making the child more vulnerable to infections. Since steroids can mask typical signs of infection, it is essential to look for subtle symptoms to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the impact of prednisone therapy in nephrotic syndrome.

5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

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