a child receives a vaccine for mmr six hours after the injection the childs parent reports local soreness erythema lethargy and a fever of 101f to a n
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ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam

1. A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child�s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101�F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low-grade fever, malaise, and muscle aches are common reactions. Acetaminophen usually alleviates these problems. MMR is a live vaccine but it is attenuated or completely avirulent and does not cause measles in healthy children, only immunocompromised children.

2. The healthcare provider is providing teaching about Social Development to the parents of a preschooler. Which of the following play activities should the provider recommend for the child?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the preschool age, play activities should promote social, mental, and physical development. Playing dress-up encourages imagination, creativity, and social interaction, making it an ideal play activity for preschoolers.

3. Which physical assessment technique should be omitted when caring for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with Wilms' tumor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Palpating the abdomen should be omitted when caring for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with Wilms' tumor because it could disturb the tumor and potentially cause the malignancy to spread. The other assessment techniques are safe to perform and provide valuable information about the child's condition. Range-of-motion exercises help assess mobility and joint health, assessing for bowel sounds is important to monitor gastrointestinal function, and percussing ankle and knee reflexes can help evaluate neurological responses.

4. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

5. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

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