ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. How do models of practice help therapists engage in sound therapeutic reasoning?
- A. They provide structure to guide thinking
- B. They address theory but not practice
- C. They predict the outcome of intervention
- D. They examine physical characteristics of the child
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Models of practice help therapists engage in sound therapeutic reasoning by providing a structured framework to guide their thinking process. These models offer a systematic approach that assists therapists in organizing their thoughts and decision-making processes during therapy sessions. By following a specific model, therapists can ensure they consider all relevant factors and make informed therapeutic choices, leading to effective interventions and better outcomes for their clients.
2. The healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. The healthcare provider should recommend that the parent offer which of the following foods to the child?
- A. Wheat bread
- B. Vanilla malt
- C. Barley soup
- D. Rice pudding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Celiac disease requires a lifelong gluten-free diet. Foods containing gluten such as wheat, barley, and rye should be avoided. Rice pudding is a safe option as it does not contain gluten, making it a suitable choice for a child with celiac disease.
3. During a well-child visit, a nurse is assessing a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 90/50
- B. Respiratory rate 45/min
- C. Weight 14.5 kg or 32 lb
- D. Heart rate 110/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 45/min is above the expected reference range for a 3-year-old toddler and may indicate respiratory dysfunction or acute respiratory distress. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?
- A. Administering a cough suppressant
- B. Inserting a Foley catheter
- C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
- D. Monitoring urinary output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.
5. When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place a cardiac monitor on the adolescent prior to the procedure
- B. Apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour prior to the procedure
- C. Keep the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure
- D. Restrict fluids for 2 hours following the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture is to apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour before the procedure. This helps reduce pain experienced during the lumbar puncture, making the procedure more comfortable for the adolescent. Placing a cardiac monitor on the adolescent is not necessary for a lumbar puncture. Keeping the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure is not a standard practice after a lumbar puncture. Restricting fluids for 2 hours following the procedure is not a requirement for a lumbar puncture preparation.
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