Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Periods of elevated mood
• B. Decreased need for sleep
• C. Flight of ideas
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client with bipolar disorder typically include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, characterized by the inability to experience pleasure, is more commonly associated with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder. The other choices are characteristic features of bipolar disorder, such as mania or hypomania.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which intervention is most appropriate to address the client's delusions?

• A. Challenge the client's delusions directly.
• B. Provide evidence to disprove the delusions.
• C. Acknowledge the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusions.
• D. Ignore the client's delusions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions, the most appropriate intervention is to acknowledge the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusions. This approach helps maintain trust and communication, fostering a therapeutic relationship. Challenging the delusions directly can lead to increased distress and resistance from the client. Providing evidence to disprove the delusions may not be effective due to the deeply ingrained nature of the client's beliefs. Ignoring the delusions may make the client feel dismissed or unheard, which can hinder the therapeutic process.

3. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.

5. Before discharge from the chemical dependency unit, clients are introduced to different community resources. Which of the following resources would be best for a teenage client, who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days?

• A. Detoxification center
• B. Home care
• C. Assertive community team
• D. Twelve-step recovery group

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a teenage client who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days, the best resource would be a detoxification center. This specialized facility can provide the necessary medical and psychological support to safely manage the withdrawal symptoms associated with substance abuse. It is crucial to ensure a safe and supervised detox process for the client's well-being and successful recovery.

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