Nursing Elites

1. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

2. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient are common initial biological responses to stress? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Constricted pupils
• B. Watery eyes
• C. Unusual food cravings
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When faced with stress, the body can react in various ways. Symptoms such as constricted pupils, increased heart rate, and increased respirations are commonly seen as initial biological responses to stress. In this case, the presence of constricted pupils is not typically associated with stress responses. Dilated pupils are more commonly linked to the Fight or Flight response. Watery eyes and increased heart rate are typical responses to stress. Unusual food cravings are not considered a typical biological response to stress.

3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• B. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

4. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the delusions.
• B. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
• C. Distract the client from the delusions.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss the delusions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions, providing reality-based feedback is considered an effective intervention to address this symptom. This approach helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not real, assisting them in managing their delusions and promoting their overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the delusions does not help the client in distinguishing reality from delusions. Choice C is incorrect as distraction may only provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to discuss the delusions may reinforce or intensify them rather than help in managing them effectively.

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