ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. History of myocardial infarction
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of nitrates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.
2. A client with chronic bronchitis is receiving education from a healthcare provider about the condition. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid being around people who smoke.
- B. I should try to avoid any exposure to pollutants and irritants.
- C. I should limit my fluid intake to avoid worsening my cough.
- D. I should use my inhaler regularly, even when I don't have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting fluid intake is not recommended for chronic bronchitis. Hydration is essential as it helps thin mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for managing chronic bronchitis. Avoiding exposure to smoke, pollutants, and irritants can help reduce respiratory symptoms and exacerbations. Using the inhaler regularly, even in the absence of symptoms, is crucial for controlling inflammation and maintaining airway function.
3. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
4. A client on an acute medicine unit of a hospital with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction is reporting intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which physiologic phenomenon is most likely contributing to her complaint?
- A. Somatic pain resulting from pressure on the parietal peritoneum
- B. Referred pain from her small bowel
- C. Visceral pain resulting from distension and ischemia
- D. Neuropathic pain resulting from autonomic dysfunction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Visceral pain is associated with distension, ischemia, and inflammation of internal organs. In the case of a small bowel obstruction, the intense, diffuse pain reported by the client is likely due to the distension and ischemia of the small bowel. Somatic pain (Choice A) would be more localized and sharp, typically arising from the parietal peritoneum. Referred pain (Choice B) is pain perceived at a site distant from the actual pathology. Neuropathic pain (Choice D) involves dysfunction or damage to the nervous system and is not typically associated with the described physiologic phenomenon of distension and ischemia in the context of a small bowel obstruction.
5. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
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