Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. History of myocardial infarction
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. Use of nitrates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.

2. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

• A. Sympathetic nerves.
• B. Parasympathetic nerves.
• C. Somatic nerves.
• D. Spinal reflexes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

3. What specific instructions should the nurse provide for proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) in a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with milk due to potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to take the medication at bedtime specifically. Choice D is incorrect as taking alendronate with food can decrease its absorption.

4. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

• A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
• B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
• C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
• D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

5. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
• C. Estrogen
• D. Lactate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

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