ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. History of myocardial infarction
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of nitrates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.
2. When does pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsen?
- A. with rest because blood flow decreases.
- B. with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away.
- C. when the leg is in a dependent position because blood pools.
- D. when the leg is touched or massaged because cytokines are released.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away from the affected area, leading to decreased perfusion and exacerbation of symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because resting, dependent position, and touch/massage do not typically worsen the pain associated with peripheral artery disease.
3. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.
4. Joseph, a 12-year-old child, complains to the school nurse about nausea and dizziness. While assessing the child, the nurse notices a black eye that looks like an injury. This is the third time in 1 month that the child has visited the nurse. Each time, the child provides vague explanations for various injuries. Which of the following is the school nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Contact the child’s parents and ask about the child’s injuries.
- B. Encourage the child to be honest about the injuries.
- C. Question the teacher about the child's injuries.
- D. Report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The school nurse's priority intervention in this situation is to report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities. Given the pattern of unexplained injuries and vague explanations provided by the child, it raises significant concerns for possible abuse. Reporting to the appropriate authorities is crucial to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Contacting the child's parents (Choice A) may not be appropriate if abuse is suspected, as it could potentially put the child at further risk. Merely encouraging the child to be honest (Choice B) does not address the immediate safety concerns. Questioning the teacher (Choice C) is not the appropriate initial action when abuse is suspected; reporting to authorities should take precedence.
5. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Coagulative necrosis
- B. Liquefactive necrosis
- C. Caseous necrosis
- D. Autonecrosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
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