a female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy what is the primary goal of this therapy
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

2. What is the primary cause of angina?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstruction of the coronary arteries. Angina is primarily caused by a reduced blood flow to the heart due to blockages or narrowing in the coronary arteries. Choice A is incorrect because while increased oxygen demand can contribute to angina symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as angina is not caused by a lack of oxygen in the lungs. Choice D is also incorrect as angina is not related to decreased blood supply to the liver.

3. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

4. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He reports recent onset of a productive cough and hemoptysis. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. The symptoms described - fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough, and hemoptysis - are classic manifestations of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, commonly affecting the lungs but can also involve other organs. **Choice A: Lung cancer** typically presents with symptoms like persistent cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case due to the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice B: Pneumonia** can present with productive cough, fever, and chest pain, but it is less likely given the chronicity of symptoms and the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice D: Pulmonary embolism** usually presents with sudden onset shortness of breath, chest pain, and can be associated with risk factors like recent surgery or immobility.

5. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

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