ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A community health nurse is assessing an adolescent who is pregnant. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Social relationships with peers.
- B. Plans for attending school while pregnant.
- C. Eligibility for Medicaid.
- D. Understanding of infant care.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understanding of infant care. When assessing a pregnant adolescent, the priority is to ensure that she has the necessary knowledge and skills to care for her newborn. This assessment is crucial in promoting the health and well-being of both the adolescent mother and her baby. Option A, social relationships with peers, though important, is not the priority during this assessment. Option B, plans for attending school while pregnant, is also important but does not take precedence over ensuring the adolescent's understanding of infant care. Option C, eligibility for Medicaid, is important for accessing healthcare services but is not the priority assessment in this scenario.
2. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Clean the tracheostomy site daily
- B. Change the tracheostomy ties daily
- C. Suction the tracheostomy regularly
- D. Provide humidified oxygen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.
3. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?
- A. Fetal head compression
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Fetal hypoxia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
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