ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A community health nurse is assessing an adolescent who is pregnant. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Social relationships with peers.
- B. Plans for attending school while pregnant.
- C. Eligibility for Medicaid.
- D. Understanding of infant care.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understanding of infant care. When assessing a pregnant adolescent, the priority is to ensure that she has the necessary knowledge and skills to care for her newborn. This assessment is crucial in promoting the health and well-being of both the adolescent mother and her baby. Option A, social relationships with peers, though important, is not the priority during this assessment. Option B, plans for attending school while pregnant, is also important but does not take precedence over ensuring the adolescent's understanding of infant care. Option C, eligibility for Medicaid, is important for accessing healthcare services but is not the priority assessment in this scenario.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
- B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
- C. Discuss with the client their inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
- D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it helps justify the need for seclusion, provides a clear record of events leading up to the intervention, and ensures transparency in the client's care. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for hydration but is not directly related to the situation of seclusion. Discussing the inappropriate behavior with the client (Choice C) may not be safe or appropriate when seclusion is necessary for preventing harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but may not be the most immediate action needed when seclusion is already in place.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding
- B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding
- C. Place the client in a left lateral position
- D. Place the feeding bag 61 cm (24 in) above the client's abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
4. What is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's level of consciousness?
- A. Use the Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess the patient's orientation
- C. Check pupillary response
- D. Monitor vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye response, verbal response, and motor response. This scale provides a numeric value that helps in determining the severity of brain injury or altered mental status. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while assessing the patient's orientation, checking pupillary response, and monitoring vital signs are important components of a comprehensive patient assessment, they do not specifically target the assessment of consciousness level, which is best done using the Glasgow Coma Scale.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.
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