ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A community health nurse is assessing an adolescent who is pregnant. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Social relationships with peers.
- B. Plans for attending school while pregnant.
- C. Eligibility for Medicaid.
- D. Understanding of infant care.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understanding of infant care. When assessing a pregnant adolescent, the priority is to ensure that she has the necessary knowledge and skills to care for her newborn. This assessment is crucial in promoting the health and well-being of both the adolescent mother and her baby. Option A, social relationships with peers, though important, is not the priority during this assessment. Option B, plans for attending school while pregnant, is also important but does not take precedence over ensuring the adolescent's understanding of infant care. Option C, eligibility for Medicaid, is important for accessing healthcare services but is not the priority assessment in this scenario.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the client's respiratory rate.
- B. Administer naloxone.
- C. Check the client's pain level.
- D. Assess the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.
3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
4. What is the best way to assess a patient's respiratory function after surgery?
- A. Check oxygen saturation
- B. Auscultate lung sounds
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check skin color
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check oxygen saturation. This is because checking oxygen saturation provides a direct measure of how well the patient is oxygenating post-surgery. It helps healthcare providers assess if the patient is receiving enough oxygen to meet their body's needs. Auscultating lung sounds (choice B) is important to assess respiratory function but may not provide an immediate indication of oxygenation status. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is relevant but does not directly assess oxygenation levels. Checking skin color (choice D) can provide some information about oxygenation, but it is not as precise or direct as measuring oxygen saturation.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
- B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
- D. Client reports dyspnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
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