Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Calf tenderness.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Elevated blood pressure.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18/min.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical finding that can indicate a pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of DVT. This symptom suggests a potential life-threatening situation and requires immediate intervention. Calf tenderness, while common in DVT, is not as urgent as shortness of breath. Elevated blood pressure and a respiratory rate of 18/min are important to assess but are not typically as indicative of a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
• B. Turn the client every 4 hours
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.

4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid nausea.''
• B. ''I should take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.''
• C. ''I should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.''
• D. ''I should take this medication with food to improve absorption.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.

5. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the medication
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

Similar Questions