ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.
2. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulses
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Pale, cool skin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lipsmacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect an increase in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Serum glucose level
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum calcium level
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. This occurs due to the role of cortisol in promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease is not typically associated with alterations in serum potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.
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