a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following findings should the nurse rep
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ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1-day old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the infant's head covered with a cap. This helps regulate the newborn's body temperature during phototherapy. Option A, feeding the infant glucose water every 2 hours, is incorrect because it is not a standard intervention for newborns receiving phototherapy. Option B, ensuring the newborn wears a diaper, may be necessary for hygiene but is not directly related to phototherapy. Option D, applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours, is unnecessary and not indicated for managing jaundice or phototherapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a private room with negative airflow. This is crucial for preventing the spread of tuberculosis (TB) infection. Option B, wearing an N95 respirator when caring for the client, is important for staff protection but does not address the need for isolation precautions. Option C, placing the client in a positive pressure room, is incorrect as TB clients should be in negative pressure rooms to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option D, maintaining the client on droplet precautions, is not sufficient for TB, which requires airborne precautions.

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