a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following findings should the nurse rep
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

2. A client scheduled for a thoracentesis requires assistance from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to a sitting position. Placing the client in a sitting position helps facilitate easier access during the thoracentesis procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the removal of pleural fluid. Placing the client in a prone, supine, or lateral position would not provide the optimal positioning needed for a thoracentesis and could make the procedure more challenging or uncomfortable for the client.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.

5. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

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