a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following findings should the nurse rep
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, the priority action for the nurse is to administer 100% humidified oxygen. This is crucial to maintain the airway and address respiratory distress, which takes precedence over obtaining an ECG, collecting blood for ABG analysis, or inserting an IV catheter. Providing oxygen therapy is essential in ensuring the client's oxygenation and respiratory function are optimized in this emergency situation.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

4. A client is being discharged two days after a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks after a mastectomy. This is important to prevent complications and promote proper healing. Choice A is incorrect because tight-fitting bras can increase the risk of lymphedema and discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as sleeping on the affected side can cause discomfort and interfere with healing. Choice D is incorrect as initiating arm exercises too soon after surgery can strain the surgical site and hinder recovery.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent catheter-associated infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder. This positioning prevents urine reflux into the bladder, reducing the risk of catheter-associated infections. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of infection by introducing pathogens. Performing routine catheter irrigation (Choice C) is no longer recommended as it can increase the risk of infection by introducing bacteria. Emptying the drainage bag every 4 hours (Choice D) is a standard practice to prevent urinary stasis but is not directly related to preventing catheter-associated infections.

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