ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Atrophic vaginitis
- B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Thrombophlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.
2. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that affects the gums. It is crucial for the client to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent oral health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While the timing of medication administration and dietary considerations are important, they are not directly related to preventing the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia caused by Phenytoin.
3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.
4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
5. What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin K
- D. Vitamin B6
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.
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