Nursing Elites

1. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:

• A. Headaches
• B. Cold remedy
• C. Neuropathic pain
• D. Antianxiety

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin, an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant medication, is also used off-label for treating neuropathic pain. While its primary indications are for managing heart rhythm disorders and seizures, it has shown efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, expanding its clinical utility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as phenytoin is not commonly used for headaches, cold remedies, or antianxiety purposes.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect to feel drowsy.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.

3. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
• B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
• C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
• D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decrease in troponin levels, a regular heart rhythm, or stable blood pressure, while important parameters, do not directly reflect the effectiveness of Aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events through antiplatelet action.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots forming and leading to serious complications like pulmonary embolism. Clients with a history of deep-vein thrombosis are at a higher risk of recurrent thromboembolic events when taking tamoxifen, making it unsafe for such individuals. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy, as migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not directly interact with tamoxifen's mechanism of action or pose significant risks when used together.

5. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

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