ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:
- A. Headaches
- B. Cold remedy
- C. Neuropathic pain
- D. Antianxiety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin, an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant medication, is also used off-label for treating neuropathic pain. While its primary indications are for managing heart rhythm disorders and seizures, it has shown efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, expanding its clinical utility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as phenytoin is not commonly used for headaches, cold remedies, or antianxiety purposes.
2. A healthcare provider is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Apply one patch twice a day.
- B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
- C. Apply the patch to the child's waist.
- D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, it is important to leave the patch on for 9 hours each day to ensure the medication is effective. This duration allows for proper absorption of the medication through the skin. It is crucial for parents to follow this instruction to achieve the desired therapeutic effect for their child.
3. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.
4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.
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