phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin, an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant medication, is also used off-label for treating neuropathic pain. While its primary indications are for managing heart rhythm disorders and seizures, it has shown efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, expanding its clinical utility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as phenytoin is not commonly used for headaches, cold remedies, or antianxiety purposes.

2. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone) for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. Administering the beta2-agonist before the glucocorticoid helps promote bronchodilation and enhances the absorption of the glucocorticoid, maximizing its effectiveness in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol is usually taken as needed for quick relief of asthma symptoms and not necessarily at the same time each day. Choice C is incorrect as beclomethasone is a controller medication used for long-term asthma management, not for acute episodes. Choice D is incorrect as shaking the beclomethasone inhaler before use helps ensure proper medication dispersion for effective inhalation.

3. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

4. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This situation can result in increased drug levels in the body, causing drowsiness and other side effects. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary to prevent such adverse effects in older adult clients. Choice A, reduced cardiac function, is not directly related to the metabolism of the medication and is unlikely to cause drowsiness. Choice B, first-pass effect, refers to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it enters circulation, but it is not the cause of drowsiness in this scenario. Choice D, increased gastric motility, does not play a significant role in the metabolism of the medication and is not a likely cause of the client's drowsiness.

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