Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic known to cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia by assessing their electrolyte levels. Choice B, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is more likely to cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. Choice C, Hypercalcemia, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause increased calcium levels. Choice D, Hypoglycemia, is also incorrect as it is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

4. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?

• A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Seizures
• D. Vision Loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on Labetalol is to avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that, if abruptly stopped, can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is essential for patients to taper off this medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects.

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