ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole.
- C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
- D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.
2. When teaching a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect the development of a mild rash.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Monitor for signs of gingival hyperplasia.
- D. Increase your intake of calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition characterized by overgrowth of gum tissue. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of gingival hyperplasia, such as swollen or bleeding gums. Good oral hygiene practices are essential to prevent or manage this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause a mild rash, should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, and does not warrant an increase in calcium intake.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.
4. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will stop my contractions.
- B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
- C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
- D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so the nurse should monitor the client for hyperkalemia, which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
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