Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at bedtime as it helps decrease the production of stomach acid during the night, providing optimal relief for conditions like heartburn or acid indigestion.

2. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. It is used to treat skin infections.
• B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
• C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
• D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Stop taking the medication if your heart rate is below 70/min.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Avoid sudden changes in position.
• D. Limit your sodium intake while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Metoprolol, a medication used to treat hypertension, is to avoid sudden changes in position. Metoprolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to standing up, leading to dizziness and falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and promotes safety.

5. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

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