you realize that your patient who is being treated for a major depressive disorder requires more teaching when she makes the following statement
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the treatment of major depressive disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because the patient is planning to switch directly from Prozac, an SSRI, to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) without allowing for a washout period. This abrupt switch poses a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can be life-threatening. It is essential to educate the patient about the importance of consulting healthcare providers before changing medications to prevent potential adverse effects.

2. James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for the day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Response C is the most therapeutic as it shows empathy and encourages the patient to express their feelings and share more about their experience. By actively listening and inviting the patient to talk, the nurse creates a supportive environment that can help the patient feel heard and understood, which is essential in building trust and rapport in therapeutic communication with individuals experiencing schizophrenia.

3. After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, 'You are incompetent!' Which is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate response for the nurse is option B. By acknowledging the client's feelings and setting a boundary regarding inappropriate behavior, the nurse addresses the situation with empathy. This response demonstrates understanding of the client's emotions while also maintaining a professional standard by expressing discomfort with swearing. Option A could come off as defensive and may escalate the situation. Option C may be perceived as condescending and not immediately address the client's behavior. Option D, although offering space, does not directly address the inappropriate behavior and misses an opportunity to set a professional boundary.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

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