Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours each day washing her hands. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to wash her hands less frequently.
• B. Set a time limit for hand washing.
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
• D. Discourage the client from washing her hands.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Setting a time limit for hand washing is an appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time on this compulsive behavior. By setting a time limit, the nurse can help the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promoting a more manageable approach to hand washing without completely discouraging it. Encouraging the client to wash her hands less frequently (Choice A) may not address the root of the issue and could lead to increased anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques (Choice C) may be helpful for overall anxiety management but may not directly address the excessive hand washing behavior. Discouraging the client from washing her hands (Choice D) may increase anxiety and resistance, making it a less effective intervention.

2. Which of the following symptoms should a healthcare professional expect to assess in a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Loss of interest or pleasure
• B. Decreased ability to concentrate
• C. Significant weight loss or gain
• D. Increased energy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Symptoms of major depressive disorder include a loss of interest or pleasure, decreased ability to concentrate, significant weight loss or gain, and feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt. Increased energy is not typically associated with major depressive disorder; instead, fatigue is more common. Clients with major depressive disorder often experience a lack of energy, motivation, or enthusiasm, leading to feelings of lethargy and fatigue. Therefore, increased energy is an atypical symptom in major depressive disorder, making it the correct answer.

3. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
• B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
• C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
• D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

4. A client states, 'I am the only one who can hear voices.' Which is the nurse's best response?

• A. Tell me more about these voices.
• B. Let's explore these voices together.
• C. How long have you been hearing these voices?
• D. Have you told anyone else about these voices?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to encourage the client to talk about their experiences with hearing voices. By asking the client to share more details about the voices, the nurse can gain insight into the nature of the auditory hallucinations and better understand the client's condition. This open-ended question allows the client to express themselves freely and helps build rapport and trust between the client and the nurse. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's statement or encourage further elaboration, making them less effective responses in this context.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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