ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the flashbacks.
- B. Stay with the client and offer reassurance.
- C. Instruct the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a flashback, it is essential for the nurse to stay with the client and offer reassurance. This approach can help the client feel safe and supported during a distressing experience. Encouraging the client to ignore the flashbacks may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Instructing the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event can hinder the therapeutic process of addressing and processing the trauma. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be the immediate intervention needed during a flashback.
2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?
- A. Encourage participation in activities
- B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
- C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
- D. Discourage verbalization of feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a depressive episode, the nurse should implement interventions that promote mental well-being. Encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation are all essential components of care. Discouraging verbalization of feelings is counterproductive as it hinders the therapeutic process and communication, which are crucial for the client's emotional expression and recovery.
3. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.
4. A client with borderline personality disorder exhibits self-mutilating behavior. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to discuss underlying issues.
- B. Set firm limits on the client's behavior.
- C. Provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm.
- D. Discuss the consequences of self-mutilating behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when dealing with a client exhibiting self-mutilating behavior, especially with borderline personality disorder, is to provide a safe environment to prevent self-harm. This approach is crucial in ensuring the client's physical safety and well-being. Setting firm limits may be appropriate in some situations, but the immediate priority is to prevent self-harm. Encouraging the client to discuss underlying issues and discussing consequences are important aspects of therapy; however, in the case of acute self-mutilating behavior, the primary focus should be on creating a safe environment to prevent harm.
5. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
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