Nursing Elites

1. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the flashbacks.
• B. Stay with the client and offer reassurance.
• C. Instruct the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a flashback, it is essential for the nurse to stay with the client and offer reassurance. This approach can help the client feel safe and supported during a distressing experience. Encouraging the client to ignore the flashbacks may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Instructing the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event can hinder the therapeutic process of addressing and processing the trauma. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be the immediate intervention needed during a flashback.

2. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?

• A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
• B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
• C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
• D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

3. How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Harm/loss
• C. Threatening
• D. Challenging

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement reflects a positive outlook on the job loss, viewing it as a challenge and an opportunity for personal growth. This perspective suggests that the client is resilient and adaptive, focusing on new possibilities rather than dwelling on the negative aspects of the situation. Choice D, 'Challenging,' is the correct characterization as it aligns with the client's positive appraisal. Choices A, 'Irrelevant,' B, 'Harm/loss,' and C, 'Threatening,' are incorrect as they do not capture the client's adaptive response to the stressor.

4. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

5. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

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