Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?

• A. Delirium
• B. Mania
• C. Parkinsonism
• D. Alzheimer’s

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.

3. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What information should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication only when feeling depressed.
• D. Report any unusual side effects to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) due to potential interactions. Alcohol consumption can increase the risk of certain side effects and may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is usually taken daily regardless of the client's mood. Choice D is not the priority teaching point; while reporting side effects is important, avoiding alcohol is critical due to the potential interactions.

4. A client has been diagnosed with depersonalization/derealization disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of detachment from one's body
• B. Fear of gaining weight
• C. Paralysis of a limb
• D. Episodes of hypomania

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Depersonalization/derealization disorder is characterized by feelings of detachment from one's body or surroundings. Individuals with this disorder may feel like they are observing themselves from outside their body or that the world around them is unreal. Therefore, the nurse should expect behaviors such as feelings of detachment from one's body (A). Fear of gaining weight (B) is more indicative of an eating disorder, paralysis of a limb (C) could be related to neurological issues, and episodes of hypomania (D) are associated with mood disorders like bipolar disorder, but not specifically with depersonalization/derealization disorder.

5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

Similar Questions