Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. When planning care for a client with schizophrenia, which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage reality testing
• B. Provide opportunities for socialization
• C. Monitor for command hallucinations
• D. Promote adherence to medication regimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia, encouraging reality testing is essential. This intervention assists the client in distinguishing between delusions and reality, aiding in their treatment. While providing opportunities for socialization can help reduce isolation, monitoring for command hallucinations is crucial for the client's safety. Promoting adherence to the medication regimen is vital for symptom management. Addressing delusional thoughts in a therapeutic manner is preferable to outright discouragement, fostering a supportive environment for the client.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings shouldn't the professional expect?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, healthcare professionals should expect findings such as amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more commonly seen in these individuals due to malnutrition and other factors.

4. A nursing student new to psychiatric-mental health nursing asks a peer what resources he can use to identify the symptoms present in a specific psychiatric disorder. The best answer would be:

• A. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC)
• B. Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC)
• C. NANDA-I nursing diagnoses
• D. DSM-5

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is the standard classification of mental disorders used by mental health professionals in the U.S. It provides criteria for diagnosing different psychiatric disorders based on symptoms and clinical observations. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) and Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) are focused on nursing interventions and outcomes, respectively, while NANDA-I nursing diagnoses are related to identifying nursing problems and their contributing factors.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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