Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?

• A. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.
• D. I should avoid taking this medication with other medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.

5. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is being cared for by a nurse. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased heart rate is a critical symptom to address in a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal as it can indicate potential cardiovascular complications. Monitoring and managing the increased heart rate promptly is essential to prevent adverse outcomes.

Similar Questions