Nursing Elites

1. You have been working closely with a patient for the past month. Today he tells you he is looking forward to meeting with his new psychiatrist but frowns and avoids eye contact while reporting this to you. Which of the following responses would most likely be therapeutic?

• A. A new psychiatrist is a chance to start fresh; I'm sure it will go well for you.
• B. You say you look forward to the meeting, but you appear anxious or unhappy.
• C. I notice that you frowned and avoided eye contact just now. Don't you feel well?
• D. I get the impression you don't really want to see your psychiatrist—can you tell me why?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the discrepancy between the patient's verbal statement and nonverbal cues. By addressing both the patient's expressed anticipation and the conflicting nonverbal cues of frowning and avoiding eye contact, the responder demonstrates attentiveness to the patient's emotional state and encourages further exploration of underlying feelings. This approach fosters open communication and helps the patient feel understood and supported.

2. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?

• A. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.
• D. I should avoid taking this medication with other medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.

3. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?

• A. Tremors
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, increased blood pressure is a critical symptom that requires immediate attention. Elevated blood pressure can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular events or stroke. Monitoring and managing blood pressure in clients experiencing alcohol withdrawal is crucial to prevent adverse outcomes. Tremors, nausea and vomiting, and insomnia are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as increased blood pressure. Therefore, addressing increased blood pressure takes precedence in the management of a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal.

4. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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