Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

3. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?

• A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
• B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
• C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
• D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.

4. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

• A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
• B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
• D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

5. When interviewing a distressed client who was fired after 15 years of loyal employment, which of the following questions would best assist the nurse in determining the client's appraisal of the situation? Select the one that does not apply.

• A. What coping resources have you used previously in stressful situations?
• B. Have you ever faced a similar stressful situation before?
• C. Who do you think is to blame for this situation?
• D. What do you believe led to your termination from your job?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the nurse to help the client assess their coping mechanisms and perspective on the situation. Questions A and B focus on exploring the client's coping resources and past experiences to guide them towards effective stress management. Asking who is to blame (choice C) is not conducive to evaluating coping abilities; instead, it might elicit a blame-focused response, which can impede progress. Choice D, inquiring about the reason for being fired, is a nontherapeutic approach that does not promote a constructive appraisal of the situation.

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