ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3
1. What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?
- A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
- B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
- C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
- D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis.' Insulinomas cause hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production, leading to symptoms such as nervousness (from the sympathetic response to hypoglycemia), jitteriness, and diaphoresis (sweating). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (Choice B) are not typical signs of insulinoma. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (Choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinoma. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (Choice D) are more indicative of hyperthyroidism or a hypermetabolic state, rather than an insulinoma presentation.
2. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
- A. Chewing tobacco
- B. Low-fat diet
- C. Chronic alcoholism
- D. Exposure to industrial chemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
3. Which corps-level hospital is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?
- A. FSB
- B. CSH
- C. GH
- D. FH
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is GH (General Hospital), a 296-bed facility that offers care for all categories of patients. FSB, CSH, and FH do not typically refer to hospitals at the corps level and are not specifically known for providing comprehensive care.
4. After attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets, a client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, what is the nurse’s first priority?
- A. Establish a rapport to foster trust
- B. Place the client in full restraints
- C. Try to communicate with the client in writing
- D. Ensure safety by initiating suicide precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's first priority in this situation is to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. This involves removing any potential means of self-harm and closely monitoring the client to prevent further attempts. While establishing rapport and communication are important, safety is paramount at this critical juncture. Placing the client in full restraints should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for immediate safety concerns.
5. The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
- A. The nursing assistant aspirates and measures the amount of gastric aspirate
- B. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the client’s bed 30 degrees
- C. The nursing assistant warms the formula to room temperature
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration, and warming the formula to room temperature helps prevent discomfort and complications. Choice A is incorrect as only licensed healthcare professionals should aspirate and measure the amount of gastric aspirate. Choice B is correct as it helps prevent aspiration. Choice C is correct as warming the formula can prevent discomfort.
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